Preimage of Image of Injection

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Theorem

Let $g: S \to T$ be a mapping.

Let $f_g: \mathcal P \left({S}\right) \to \mathcal P \left({T}\right)$ be the mapping induced by $g$.

Similarly, Let $f_{g^{-1}}: \mathcal P \left({T}\right) \to \mathcal P \left({S}\right)$ be the mapping induced by the inverse $g^{-1}$.


Then:

$\forall A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right): A = \left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right)$

iff $f$ is an injection.


Proof

Sufficient Condition

Let $f$ be such that:

$\forall A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right): A = \left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right)$

In particular, it holds for all subsets of $A$ which are singletons.

Now, consider any $x, y \in A$.

We have:

\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\) \(\displaystyle f \left({x}\right) = f \left({y}\right)\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\implies\) \(\displaystyle f_g \left({\left\{ {x}\right\} }\right) = \left\{ {f \left({x}\right)}\right\} = \left\{ {f \left({y}\right)}\right\} = f_g \left({\left\{ {y}\right\} }\right)\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)          by definition of induced mapping          
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\implies\) \(\displaystyle \left\{ {x}\right\} = f_{g^{-1} } \left({f_g \left({\left\{ {x}\right\} }\right)}\right) = f_{g^{-1} } \left({f_g \left({\left\{ {y}\right\} }\right)}\right) = \left\{ {y}\right\}\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)          by hypothesis: $A = \left({f_{g^{-1} } \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right)$          
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\implies\) \(\displaystyle x = y\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    

So $f$ is an injection.

$\Box$


Necessary Condition

Let $f$ be an injection.

From Subset of Domain is Subset of Preimage of Image, we have that:

$\forall A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right): A \subseteq \left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right)$

by dint of $f$ being a relation.

So what we need to do is show that:

$\forall A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right): \left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right) \subseteq A$


Take any $A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right)$.

Let $x \in A$.

We have:

\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle f \left({x}\right)\) \(\in\) \(\displaystyle f_g \left({A}\right)\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \implies\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \exists y \in A: f \left({x}\right)\) \(=\) \(\displaystyle f \left({y}\right)\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \implies\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle x\) \(=\) \(\displaystyle y \in A\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    

Thus we see that:

$\left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right) \subseteq A$

and hence the result:

$\forall A \in \mathcal P \left({S}\right): A = \left({f_{g^{-1}} \circ f_g}\right) \left({A}\right)$

$\blacksquare$


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