Talk:Cauchy's Inequality
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I understand that this is true: $\exists \lambda_n: \lambda_1 < \lambda_n < \lambda_2: f \left({\lambda_n}\right) < 0$, but do we have a proof of why? --cynic 03:02, 18 October 2008 (UTC)
Good call. Not yet but no reason why not. Up for it? --Matt Westwood 09:37, 18 October 2008 (UTC)
