Talk:Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality/Inner Product Spaces

This proof is better. Wok 03:23, 20 February 2011 (CST)

I completely disagree, for reasons I've mentioned here. What's your reasons for thinking that this one is better? --prime mover 03:46, 20 February 2011 (CST)

Mainly, I find it strange to take the inverse in the formula for $\lambda$. Does it exist? Wok 05:30, 22 February 2011 (CST)

When $y = 0$, $\langle y, y \rangle ^ {-1}$ doesn't exist, but in this case the C-S inequality is trivial: $0 \leq 0$. I've added a line to clarify this. -- Linus44 07:08, 22 February 2011 (CST)

Wok: don't understand you, man. Taking what inverse? --prime mover 13:56, 22 February 2011 (CST)

What I will probably get round to doing is merging both proofs into the same page with the appropriate extra wordage describing for which fields each proof is valid. --prime mover 00:17, 23 February 2011 (CST)