Equivalence of Definitions of Euler's Number

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Theorem

The two definitions of Euler's number $e$ as given by:

  • $\displaystyle e = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left({1 + \frac 1 n}\right)^n$


  • $\displaystyle e = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {n!}$

are equivalent to the definition of $e$ as the number satisfied by $\ln e = 1$.


Thus all definitions for $e$ are equivalent.

Proof

See Exponential as the Limit of a Sequence for how $\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \left({1 + \frac 1 n}\right)^n = e$ follows from the definition of $e$ as the number satisfied by $\ln e = 1$.

See Euler's Number: Limit of Sequence implies Limit of Series for how $\displaystyle e = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {n!}$ follows from $\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \left({1 + \frac 1 n}\right)^n = e$.

Now suppose $e$ is defined as $\displaystyle e = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {n!}$.

Let us consider the series $\displaystyle f \left({x}\right) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^n} {n!}$.

From Series of Power over Factorial Converges, this is convergent for all $x$.

We differentiate $f \left({x}\right)$ WRT $x$ term by term (justified by Power Series Differentiable on Interval of Convergence), and get:

\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle D_x \left({f \left({x}\right)}\right)\) \(=\) \(\displaystyle D_x \left({1}\right) + D_x \left({\frac {x} {1!} }\right) + D_x \left({\frac {x^2} {2!} }\right) + D_x \left({\frac {x^3} {3!} }\right) + \cdots + D_x \left({\frac {x^n} {n!} }\right) + D_x \left({\frac {x^{n+1} } {\left({n+1}\right)!} }\right) + \cdots\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(=\) \(\displaystyle 0 + 1 + \frac {2 x} {2!} + \frac {3 x^2} {3!} + \cdots + \frac {n x^{n-1} } {n!} + \frac {\left({n+1}\right) x^n} {\left({n+1}\right)!} + \cdots\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(=\) \(\displaystyle 1 + \frac x {1!} + \frac {x^2} {2!} + \cdots + \frac {x^{n-1} } {\left({n-1}\right)!} + \frac {x^n} {n!} \cdots\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    
\(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(=\) \(\displaystyle f \left({x}\right)\) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \) \(\displaystyle \)                    

Thus we have $D_x \left({f \left({x}\right)}\right) = f \left({x}\right)$ and thus from Differential of Exponential Function it follows that $f \left({x}\right) = e^x$.

From Derivative of an Inverse Function we get that $D_x \left({f^{-1} \left({x}\right)}\right) = \dfrac 1 {f^{-1} \left({x}\right)}$.

Hence from Derivative of Natural Logarithm Function it follows that $f^{-1} \left({x}\right) = \ln x$.

It follows that $e$ can be defined as that number such that $\ln e = 1$.

Hence all the definitions of $e$ as given here are equivalent.

$\blacksquare$


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